Could those that opposed the Civil Rights act be using the same logic that those here saying National Reciprocity is wrong?
I am a simpleton so I think like Trump.
A man is a man he is not 3/5s a man or what ever the slave definition was back then.
For me, a man/woman is entitled to all the same rights so in the Constitution, a document meant to be interpreted, if we decided that a man/woman is a man/woman no matter how the color of their skin, the religion practiced etc should have the exact same rights in all situations. That's how us simpletons/Trump think.
If that can be accomplished why did we need a Civil Rights Act? It seems however, that we couldn't so what made the Civil Rights act necessary?
In a similar vein with the 2A, the wording seems so simple. I thought the Bill of Rights conferred rights to all men. One being the 2A. If the states infringe on these rights then we appeal "all the way to the Supreme Court" where it is decided if the state's restrictions is legitimate. If we can have a 2A rights act, why is it necessarily different from the Civil Rights act in how it works to fix where the past interpretation was incorrect.
Divorced from all the legalese and left with pragmatic thinking that is how it should work, if it doesn't its broken.
Well, wait. If you're talking about those in this thread, I'm not going to speak for them. But for me it's not that I think there shouldn't be national reciprocity. It's that I am apprehensive that it could be used against us. And I'm not going to pretend that I'm an expert. I'm not a lawyer. And if a national reciprocity law were written such that it couldn't be used to force some common rules, I'm okay with it. I was just looking at it as, be careful what you wish for, what you get might not be what you wished for.